A 70 year old male, Kamal, presents with lower GI bleed for the last 6 months. On sigmoidoscopic examination, there is a hard non-obstructing mass of 4 cms about 3 cms above the anal verge. The treatment of choice is
a) anterior resection
b) abdominoperineal resection
c) defunctioning anastomosis
d) colostomy
Ans (b)
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